Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
15.06.2025 03:34
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
There's no rule.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Did you ever accidentally have sex with your brother/sister in India?
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
You'll usually find your answer there.
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Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Have you ever witnessed a remote beach show where hundreds of turtles crawling to the water?
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.